Is there performance difference between wiring a driver in series vs parallel?

[Queef]

In series (8 ohms) the current in amperes will be less

In parallel (2 ohms) the current in amperes will be more

A bb gun (8) , a 44 magnum (2)

An oak tree (8) , a piece of paper (2)

A punch from a small child (8) , a punch from Mike Tyson (2)

Make any sense ?

You can feed an amp with a small fuse with 8 gauge wire. ( Small child )
A mono amp with 4 big fuses you feed with 1/0 gauge ( Mike Tyson )

[Smitty]

.... It just leaves me wondering why DVC drivers still exist given how cheap power is these days and how easily it is to buy a SVC driver with the impedance required to reach the desired final load.

I mean if you want two 12" drivers and a 1 ohm final impedance, buy two SVC 2 ohm drivers.

DVC drivers are mainly for flexibility. There is more mass in some so T/S also changes but mainly flexibility/options.

[Queef]

https://jlaudio.zendesk.com/hc/en-us...bile_site=true

Look here for help in understanding

https://jlaudio.zendesk.com/hc/en-us...bile_site=true

DVC wiring diagrams

[JCsAudio]

To answer your question wether there is a performance difference between wiring a DVC subwoofer in series vs parallel; if the power input is the same than no. You won’t notice any difference in sound qaulity, damping factor, or anything else. What you will notice, and you can’t help but notice it when wired in parallel is that the amplifier connected will send up to 50% more power to the subwoofer due to the reduced resistance, and when that happens you will notice the difference in perceived SPL. This has I think confused the shit ton of a lot of people, even very intelligent people into thinking there is some kind of magic hocus-pocus going on and there isn’t.

the DVC configuration helps you by giving you more options. If your subwoofers needs are modest and your amplifier can supply more than 150% of the power the subwoofer needs at say 1 Ohm than wire it for 4 Ohms or 8 ohms vs 1 ohm or 2 ohms. They also give you wiring flexibility when using more than 1 subwoofer.

[Holmz]

In series (8 ohms) the current in amperes will be less

In parallel (2 ohms) the current in amperes will be more

A bb gun (8) , a 44 magnum (2)

An oak tree (8) , a piece of paper (2)

A punch from a small child (8) , a punch from Mike Tyson (2)

Make any sense ?

You can feed an amp with a small fuse with 8 gauge wire. ( Small child )
A mono amp with 4 big fuses you feed with 1/0 gauge ( Mike Tyson )

Power is measured in watts.
if the power is the same, then the Mike Tysons are the same, and both 2 and 8 ohm will remove an ear.

[Queef]

This has I think confused the shit out of a lot of people, even very intelligent people into thinking there is some kind of magic hocus-pocus going on and there isn’t.

Once the magic smoke gets out . . .


L0L

[Weigel21]

https://jlaudio.zendesk.com/hc/en-us...bile_site=true

Look here for help in understanding

https://jlaudio.zendesk.com/hc/en-us...bile_site=true

DVC wiring diagrams

And here you have it, there is "NO" behavioral difference between a driver when wired in series or parallel according to the first link you posted.

Again, we all know that a lower impedance results in an amplifier being capable of producing more power, however, that was completely irrelevant in my question.

Again, 1000RMS @1 ohm, 1000RMS@2ohms, 1000RMS@4 ohms is still 1000RMS.

Yes, I know that a 1 ohm load and a 2 ohm load to an amplifier will result in a different amount of power capable of being produced by said amplifier and in return, the driver getting more power will be louder. However, that has NOTHING to do with the specific question I asked.

One can easily limit the power produced by an amplifier through setting the gain lower (at least to some extent).

That said, one could set an amplifier capable of 1000RMS@4 ohms to limit output at 2ohms to 1000RMS as well, in which case, that is what I was asking if there is a difference in how a driver would perform. Short and simple answer is that there should be no significant difference.

[Queef]

If you are happy , then I am happy !

Lower impedance more current in amperes

Is a glass of water wet ? Yes
Is a tidal wave wet ? Yes

I would be happy to get hit with a small amount of water , but if I was trying to impress someone . . . A tidal wave is way more impressive !

Mark my words

[Queef]

And here you have it, there is "NO" behavioral difference between a driver when wired in series or parallel according to the first link you posted.

Again, we all know that a lower impedance results in an amplifier being capable of producing more power, however, that was completely irrelevant in my question.

Again, 1000RMS @1 ohm, 1000RMS@2ohms, 1000RMS@4 ohms is still 1000RMS.

Short and simple answer is that there should be no significant difference.

With a simple calculation of Ohm's Law you see as resistance is doubled , power is halved.

Unless you have never heard of Ohm's Law ?

The current in Amperes doubles when resistance in Ohms is cut in half.

So yes there is a "measurable" difference in your example of 1 , 2 or 4 Ohms.
If you can hear a difference between the "amount" of "Hit" from a kick drum with a light kick/medium kick and a very heavy kick . . . You may be able to discern the difference between more volts and less amperes or less amperes and more volts (even though 1,000 watts is always produced ).

I can fill two 8 oz containers with cottage cheese , the amount of whey and the amount of curds might not be identical though ?

[Queef]

Ten times one hundred equals 1,000 ?

10 volts x 100 amperes or 10 amperes x 100 volts ?